一、题目
如果对微分方程 $y ^{\prime \prime} – 2ay ^{\prime} + (a+2)y$ $=$ $0$ 任一解 $y(x)$,反常积分 $\int_{0}^{+\infty} y(x)\mathrm{~d} x$ 均收敛,则 $a$ 的取值范围为( )
»A«. $(-2, -1]$.
»B«. $(-\infty, -1]$.
»C«. $(-2, 0)$.
»D«. $(-\infty, 0)$.
如果对微分方程 $y ^{\prime \prime} – 2ay ^{\prime} + (a+2)y$ $=$ $0$ 任一解 $y(x)$,反常积分 $\int_{0}^{+\infty} y(x)\mathrm{~d} x$ 均收敛,则 $a$ 的取值范围为( )
»A«. $(-2, -1]$.
»B«. $(-\infty, -1]$.
»C«. $(-2, 0)$.
»D«. $(-\infty, 0)$.
已知函数 $f(x)$ $=$ $\int_{0}^{x} \mathrm{e}^{t^{2}}\sin t \mathrm{~d} t$, $g(x)$ $=$ $\int_{0}^{x} \mathrm{e}^{t^{2}} \mathrm{~d} t \cdot \sin^{2} x$,则:
»A«. $x=0$ 是 $f(x)$ 的极值点,也是 $g(x)$ 的极值点.
»B«. $x=0$ 是 $f(x)$ 的极值点,$(0,0)$ 是曲线 $y=g(x)$ 的拐点.
»C«. $x=0$ 是 $f(x)$ 的极值点,$(0,0)$ 是曲线 $y=f(x)$ 的拐点.
»D«. $(0,0)$ 是曲线 $y=f(x)$ 的拐点,$(0,0)$ 也是曲线 $y=g(x)$ 的拐点.
设函数 $z = z(x, y)$ 由 $z + \ln z – \int_{y}^{x} \mathrm{e}^{-t^{2} } \mathrm{~d} t$ $=$ $0$ 确定,则 $\frac{\partial z}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial z}{\partial y}$ $=$ $?$
»A«. $\frac{z}{z+1} \left(\mathrm{e}^{-x^{2}} – \mathrm{e}^{ -y^{2}} \right)$
»B«. $\frac{z}{z+1} \left( \mathrm{e}^{-x^{2}} + \mathrm{e}^{-y^{2}} \right)$
»C«. $- \frac{z}{z+1} \left(\mathrm{e}^{-x^{2}} – \mathrm{e}^{-y^{2}} \right)$
»D«. $- \frac{z}{z+1} \left( \mathrm{e}^{-x^{2}} + \mathrm{e}^{-y^{2}} \right)$
已知向量组 $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1}$ $=$ $\begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \\ -1 \\ -1 \end{pmatrix}$, $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2}$ $=$ $\begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ -1 \\ 0 \\ -2 \end{pmatrix}$, $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{3}$ $=$ $\begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ -1 \\ 1 \\ -1 \end{pmatrix}$, $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{4}$ $=$ $\begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ -1 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix}$, 记 $\boldsymbol{A}$ $=$ $(\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1}$ $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{3}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{4})$, $\boldsymbol{G}$ $=$ $(\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2})$.
(1)证明:$\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2}$ 是 $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{3}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{4}$ 的极大线性无关组;
(2)求矩阵 $\boldsymbol{H}$ 使得 $\boldsymbol{A} = \boldsymbol{GH}$,并求 $\boldsymbol{A}^{10}$.
首先:
$$
\begin{aligned}
\boldsymbol{A} & = (\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{3}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{4}) \\ \\
& = \begin{pmatrix}
1 & 1 & 0 & 0 \\
0 & -1 & -1 & 1 \\
-1 & 0 & 1 & -1 \\
-1 & -2 & -1 & 1
\end{pmatrix} \\ \\
& \textcolor{lightgreen}{ \leadsto } \begin{pmatrix}
1 & 0 & -1 & 1 \\
0 & 1 & 1 & -1 \\
0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\
0 & 0 & 0 & 0
\end{pmatrix}
\end{aligned}
$$
于是可知,$\mathrm{r}(\boldsymbol{A}) = 2$ 且 $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1}$, $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2}$ 线性无关,同时可知:
$$
\begin{aligned}
\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{3} & = -\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1} + \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2} \\
\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{4} & = \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1} – \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2}
\end{aligned}
$$
综上可知,$\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1}$, $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2}$ 是 $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1}$, $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2}$, $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{3}$, $\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{4}$ 的极大线性无关组.
由题及上面的第 (1) 问,可知:
$$
\begin{aligned}
\boldsymbol{A} & = (\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{3}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{4}) \\ \\
& = (\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1},\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2},-\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1} + \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2},\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1} – \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2})_{4 \times 4} \\ \\
& =(\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1},\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2})_{4 \times 2}\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & -1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 1 & -1 \end{pmatrix}_{2\times4}
\end{aligned}
$$
又因为,$\boldsymbol{A} = \boldsymbol{GH}$, $\boldsymbol{G}$ $=$ $(\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{1}, \boldsymbol{\alpha}_{2})$, 所以:
$$
\textcolor{lightgreen}{
\boldsymbol{H} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & -1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 1 & -1 \end{pmatrix}
}
$$
接着,有:
$$
\begin{aligned}
\boldsymbol{A}^{10} & = (\boldsymbol{GH})^{10} \\ \\
& = \boldsymbol{GHGH} \cdots \boldsymbol{GH} \\ \\
& = \boldsymbol{G} (\boldsymbol{HG})^{9} \boldsymbol{H}
\end{aligned}
$$
其中:
$$
\boldsymbol{ HG } = \begin{pmatrix}1 & 0 & -1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 1 & -1\end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix}1 & 1 \\ 0 & -1 \\ -1 & 0 \\ -1 & -2\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}1 & -1 \\ 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}
$$
又因为:
$$
\begin{aligned}
& \boldsymbol{D}^{2}=\begin{pmatrix}1 & -2 \\ 0 & 1\end{pmatrix} \\ \\
& \boldsymbol{D}^{3}=\begin{pmatrix}1 & -3 \\ 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}
\end{aligned}
$$
由此,递推可知:
$$
\boldsymbol{D}^{9} = \begin{pmatrix}1 & -9 \\ 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}
$$
综上可得:
$$
\begin{aligned}
\textcolor{lightgreen}{ \boldsymbol{A}^{10} } & = \boldsymbol{GD}^{9} \boldsymbol{H} \\ \\
& = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 0 & -1 \\ -1 & 0 \\ -1 & -2 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} 1 & -9 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & -1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 & 1 & -1 \end{pmatrix} \\ \\
& = \textcolor{lightgreen}{ \begin{pmatrix}1 & 8 & -9 & 9 \\ 0 & -1 & -1 & 1 \\ -1 & 9 & 10 & -10 \\ -1 & 7 & 8 & -8\end{pmatrix} }
\end{aligned}
$$
求微分方程 $x^{2} y^{\prime \prime}$ $-$ $2xy^{\prime}$ $-$ $(y^{\prime})^{2}$ $=$ $0$ $(x > 2)$ 满足条件 $y|_{x=3} = \frac{1}{2}$, $y^{\prime}|_{x=3} = -9$ 的解.
已知 $M(x_{0}, y_{0})$ 是曲线 $y = \frac{1}{1 + x^{2}}(x \geq 0)$ 的拐点,$O$ 为坐标原点.记 $D$ 是第一象限中以曲线 $y = \frac{1}{1 + x^{2}}(x \geq x_{0})$, 线段 $OM$ 及 $X$ 轴正半轴为边界的无界区域,求 $D$ 绕 $X$ 轴旋转所成旋转体的体积.
求解本题的第一步,就是要绘制一个示意图. 但是,需要注意的是,题目所说的区域 $D$, 并不是如图 01 所示的区域 $D^{\prime}$:
题目所说的区域 $D$ 是如图 02 所示的区域 $D$:
由于我们目前不知道点 $M$ 的坐标,只知道该点是一个拐点,所以也就不能直接确定线段 $OM$ 的形式.
因此,接下来,我们要首先求解出点 $M$ 的坐标.
由于点 $M$ 是一个拐点,所以先求解其二阶导函数:
$$
\begin{aligned}
& \ y^{\prime} = -\frac{2x}{(1 + x^{2})^{2}} \\ \\
\textcolor{lightgreen}{ \leadsto } & \ y^{\prime \prime} = \frac{6x^{2} – 2}{(1 + x^{2})^{3}}
\end{aligned}
$$
接着,令 $y^{\prime \prime} = 0$ 且 $x_{0} > 0$, 得:
$$
x_{0} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}, \quad y_{0} = \frac{3}{4}
$$
于是,由线段 $OM$ 的两个端点值 $O(0,0)$ 和 $M(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}, \frac{3}{4})$ 可得嫌短 $OM$ 的表达式为:
$$
y = \frac{3}{4}\sqrt{3}x, \quad x \in \left[0, \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right]
$$
于是,我们可以绘制出如图 03 所示的示意图,在计算旋转体体积的时候,需要分 $[0, \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}]$ 和 $[\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}, +\infty)$ 这两段分别求解:
接着,由旋转体体积的计算公式,可知,区域 $D$ 绕坐标轴 $X$ 轴旋转,所得的旋转体的体积为:
$$
V = \int_{0}^{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}} \pi \cdot \left( \frac{3}{4}\sqrt{3}x \right)^{2} \mathrm{~d} x + \int_{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}}^{+\infty} \pi \cdot \frac{1}{(1 + x^{2})^{2}} \mathrm{~d} x
$$
又因为:
$$
\begin{aligned}
\textcolor{lightgreen}{\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}} \pi \left( \frac{3}{4} \sqrt{3} x \right)^{2} \mathrm{~d} x} & = \frac{27}{16} \pi \int_{0}^{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}} x^{2} \mathrm{~d} x \\ \\
& = \frac{27}{16} \pi \cdot \frac{1}{3} x^{3} \Bigg|_{0}^{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}} \\ \\
& = \frac{27}{16} \pi \cdot \frac{1}{9 \sqrt{3}} \\ \\
& = \textcolor{lightgreen}{\frac{\sqrt{3}}{16} \pi}
\end{aligned}
$$
对于 $\int_{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}}^{+\infty} \pi \frac{1}{(1 + x^{2})^{2}} \mathrm{~d} x$, 令 $x = \tan \theta$, 则:
$$
\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{6}, \frac{\pi}{2}), \quad \mathrm{d} \theta = \frac{1}{\cos^{2} \theta}
$$
所以:
$$
\begin{aligned}
\textcolor{lightgreen}{\int_{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}}^{+\infty} \pi \frac{1}{(1 + x^{2})^{2}} \mathrm{~d} x} & = \pi \int_{\frac{\pi}{6}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{\left( 1+\tan ^{2} \theta \right)^{2}} \cdot \frac{1}{\cos^{2} \theta} \mathrm{~d} \theta \\ \\
& = \pi \int_{\frac{\pi}{6}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{\left( \frac{1}{\cos^{2} \theta} \right)^{2}} \cdot \frac{1}{\cos^{2} \theta} \mathrm{~d} \theta \\ \\
& = \pi \int_{\frac{\pi}{6}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^{4} \theta \cdot \frac{1}{\cos^{2} \theta} \mathrm{~d} \theta \\ \\
& = \pi \int_{\frac{\pi}{6}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^{2}\theta \mathrm{~d} \theta \\ \\
& = \pi \int_{\frac{\pi}{6}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1 + \cos 2\theta}{2} \mathrm{~d}\theta \\ \\
& = \pi \left[ \frac{\theta}{2} + \frac{\sin 2\theta}{4} \right]_{\frac{\pi}{6}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \\ \\
& = \pi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{\sin \pi}{4} – \frac{\pi}{12} – \frac{\sin \frac{\pi}{3}}{4} \right) \\ \\
& = \pi \left( \frac{\pi}{6} – \frac{\sqrt{3}}{8} \right) \\ \\
& = \frac{\pi^{2}}{6} – \frac{\sqrt{3}}{8}\pi \\ \\
& = \textcolor{lightgreen}{\frac{\pi^{2}}{6} + \left( -\frac{\sqrt{3}}{8} \pi \right)}
\end{aligned}
$$
综上可知:
$$
\begin{aligned}
\textcolor{lightgreen}{V} & = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{16} \pi + \frac{1}{6} \pi^{2} – \frac{\sqrt{3}}{8} \pi \\ \\
& = \textcolor{lightgreen}{ \frac{1}{6} \pi^{2} – \frac{\sqrt{3}}{16} \pi }
\end{aligned}
$$
对本文的求解,并不需要计算出旋转所得曲面的表达式,但对这部分内容感兴趣的同学,可以查阅《如何由平面曲线函数得到其绕指定轴线旋转所得曲面的函数?》这篇讲义.
在本文中,「荒原之梦考研数学」将以下面的平面曲线函数为例,计算其绕不同的常见旋转轴旋转所得的曲面对应的函数表达式:
$$
y = \frac{1}{1 + x^{2}}
$$
函数 $y = \frac{1}{1 + x^{2}}$ 在二维直角坐标系中的函数图像如图 00 所示:
$$
I = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(\tan x) – 1 – \ln(\cos x)}{x(x – \arctan x)}
$$
难度评级:
需要用到的公式($x \to 0$):
$$
\begin{aligned}
& x – \arctan x \sim \frac{1}{3}x^{3} \\ \\
& f(b) – f(a) = (b – a) \cdot f^{\prime}(\xi) \\ \\
& \ln(1+x) = x – \frac{1}{2}x^{2} + \frac{1}{3}x^{3} + \cdots \\ \\
& u – \ln(1+u) \sim \frac{1}{2} u^{2}, \ u \to 0 \\ \\
& \cos x – 1 \sim -\frac{1}{2}x^{2}
\end{aligned}
$$
先处理分母部分,根据麦克劳林公式:
$$
\begin{aligned}
& \ \arctan x = x – \frac{1}{3}x^{3} + o(x^{3}) \\ \\
\textcolor{lightgreen}{ \leadsto } & \ x – \arctan x = \frac{1}{3}x^{3} + o(x^{3}) \sim \frac{1}{3}x^{3} \\ \\
\textcolor{lightgreen}{ \leadsto } & \ x(x – \arctan x) \sim x \cdot \frac{1}{3}x^{3} \sim \frac{1}{3}x^{4}
\end{aligned}
$$
接着,为了在原式中使用拉格朗日中值定理,我们在分子中加减一项 $\cos x$, 即:
$$
\begin{aligned}
I & = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(\tan x) – 1 – \ln(\cos x)}{\frac{1}{3}x^{4}} \\ \\
& = 3 \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(\tan x) – \cos x + \cos x – 1 – \ln(\cos x)}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = 3 \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(\tan x) – \cos x}{x^{4}} + 3 \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos x – 1 – \ln(\cos x)}{x^{4}} \\ \\
\end{aligned}
$$
于是,由拉格朗日中值定理,可知:
$$
\begin{aligned}
I_{1} & = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(\tan x) – \cos x}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(\tan x – x) \cdot (-\sin \xi)}{x^{4}}
\end{aligned}
$$
其中,$\xi$ 介于 $x$ 和 $\tan x$ 之间,当 $x \to 0$ 时,$\tan x \sim x$, 因此,$\xi \sim x$, 于是:
$$
I_{1} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(\frac{1}{3}x^{3}) \cdot (-x)}{x^{4}} = \frac{-1}{3}
$$
接着,由等价无穷小替换与泰勒展开可知:
$$
\begin{aligned}
I_{2} & = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos x – 1 – \ln(\cos x)}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(\cos x – 1) – \ln(1 + (\cos x – 1))}{x^{4}}
\end{aligned}
$$
于是,令 $u = \cos x – 1$, 则由前面的补充知识点可知,$u – \ln(1+u) \sim \frac{1}{2}u^{2}$, 因此:
$$
\begin{aligned}
I_{2} & = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\frac{1}{2}(\cos x – 1)^{2}}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{-1}{2}x^{2} \right)^{2}}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = \frac{1}{8}
\end{aligned}
$$
综上可知:
$$
\begin{aligned}
I & = 3(I_{1} + I_{2}) \\ \\
& = 3 \left(\frac{-1}{3} + \frac{1}{8}\right) \\ \\
& = 3 \left(\frac{-5}{24}\right) \\ \\
& = \frac{-5}{8}
\end{aligned}
$$
$$
I = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\sin^{2} x} – \sqrt{1 + 2x^{2}}}{\ln(1 + x^{2}) – \sin^{2} x}
$$
难度评级:
需要用到的公式($x \to 0$):
$$
\begin{aligned}
& \ln(1+x) = x – \frac{1}{2}x^{2} + \cdots \\ \\
& (1+x)^\alpha = 1 + \alpha x + \frac{\alpha(\alpha-1)}{2}x^{2} + \cdots \\ \\
& \sqrt{1+x} = 1 + \frac{1}{2}x – \frac{1}{8}x^{2} + \cdots \\ \\
& \sin x = x – \frac{1}{6}x^{3} + \cdots \\ \\
& \mathrm{e}^{x} = 1 + x + \frac{1}{2}x^{2} + \cdots
\end{aligned}
$$
首先处理分母部分,通过麦克劳林公式展开到 $x^{4}$ 阶:
$$
\begin{aligned}
& \ \begin{cases} \ln(1 + x^{2}) = x^{2} – \frac{1}{2}x^{4} + o(x^{4}) \\ \\
\sin^{2} x = (x – \frac{1}{6}x^{3})^{2} = x^{2} – \frac{1}{3}x^{4} + o(x^{4}) \end{cases} \\ \\
\textcolor{lightgreen}{ \leadsto } & \ \ln(1 + x^{2}) – \sin^{2} x = \left(-\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3}\right)x^{4} + o(x^{4}) \sim \frac{-1}{6}x^{4}
\end{aligned}
$$
接着,对原式进行拆分:
$$
\begin{aligned}
I & = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\sin^{2} x} – \sqrt{1 + 2x^{2}}}{-\frac{1}{6}x^{4}} \\ \\
& = -6 \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\sin^{2} x} – \mathrm{e}^{x^{2}} + \mathrm{e}^{x^{2}} – \sqrt{1 + 2x^{2}}}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = -6 \left[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\sin^{2} x} – \mathrm{e}^{x^{2}}}{x^{4}} + \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{x^{2}} – \sqrt{1 + 2x^{2}}}{x^{4}} \right]
\end{aligned}
$$
于是,由拉格朗日中值定理,可知:
$$
\begin{aligned}
I_{1} & = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\sin^{2} x} – \mathrm{e}^{x^{2}}}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(\sin^{2} x – x^{2}) \cdot \mathrm{e}^\xi}{x^{4}}
\end{aligned}
$$
由于 $\xi$ 介于 $\sin^{2} x$ 和 $x^{2}$ 之间,当 $x \to 0$ 时,$\xi \to 0$, 所以 $\mathrm{e}^\xi \to 1$, 于是:
$$
\begin{aligned}
\sin^{2} x – x^{2} & = (\sin x – x)(\sin x + x) \\ \\
& \sim \left(-\frac{1}{6}x^{3}\right) \cdot (2x) \\ \\
& \sim -\frac{1}{3}x^{4}
\end{aligned}
$$
所以:
$$
I_{1} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{-\frac{1}{3}x^{4} \cdot 1}{x^{4}} = -\frac{1}{3}
$$
接着,令:
$$
I_{2} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{x^{2}} – \sqrt{1 + 2x^{2}}}{x^{4}}
$$
又由泰勒展开,分别将两项展开至 $x^{4}$ 阶,可得:
$$
\begin{aligned}
\mathrm{e}^{x^{2}} & = 1 + x^{2} + \frac{1}{2}(x^{2})^{2} + o(x^{4}) \\ \\ & = 1 + x^{2} + \frac{1}{2}x^{4} + o(x^{4}) \\ \\
\sqrt{1 + 2x^{2}} & = 1 + \frac{1}{2}(2x^{2}) – \frac{1}{8}(2x^{2})^{2} + o(x^{4}) \\ \\ &= 1 + x^{2} – \frac{1}{2}x^{4} + o(x^{4})
\end{aligned}
$$
于是:
$$
\begin{aligned}
\mathrm{e}^{x^{2}} – \sqrt{1 + 2x^{2}} & = \left(1 + x^{2} + \frac{1}{2}x^{4}\right) – \left(1 + x^{2} – \frac{1}{2}x^{4}\right) + o(x^{4}) \\ \\ & \sim x^{4}
\end{aligned}
$$
因此:
$$
I_{2} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x^{4}}{x^{4}} = 1
$$
综上可得:
$$
\begin{aligned}
I & = -6(I_{1} + I_{2}) = -6\left(-\frac{1}{3} + 1\right) \\ \\
& = -6 \cdot \frac{2}{3} \\ \\
& = -4
\end{aligned}
$$
$$
I = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(\sin x) – \mathrm{e}^{\cos x – 1}}{\tan^{2} x – \sin^{2} x}
$$
难度评级:
需要用到的公式($x \to 0$):
$$
\begin{aligned}
& x + x^{3} \sim x \\ \\
& f(b) – f(a) = (b – a) \cdot f^{\prime}(\xi) \\ \\
& \mathrm{e}^{x} = 1 + x + \frac{x^{2}}{2} + \frac{x^{3}}{3!} + \cdots \\ \\
& \mathrm{e}^{x} – 1 \sim x \\ \\
& \mathrm{e}^{x} – 1 – x \sim \frac{x^{2}}{2} \\ \\
& \mathrm{e}^{\square} – 1 – \square \sim \frac{\square^{2}}{2}, \ \square \to 0
\end{aligned}
$$
首先对分母进行处理,得:
$\tan^{2} x – \sin^{2} x = (\tan x – \sin x)(\tan x + \sin x)$
接着, 通过泰勒公式(麦克劳林公式)展开,得:
$$
\begin{cases}
\tan x = x + \frac{1}{3}x^{3} + o(x^{3}) \\
\sin x = x – \frac{1}{6}x^{3} + o(x^{3})
\end{cases}
\Rightarrow
\begin{cases}
\tan x – \sin x = \frac{1}{2}x^{3} + o(x^{3}) \sim \frac{1}{2}x^{3} \\
\tan x + \sin x = 2x + o(x) \sim 2x
\end{cases}
$$
于是:
$$
\begin{aligned}
\tan^{2} x – \sin^{2} x & \sim \frac{1}{2}x^{3} \cdot 2x \\ \\
& = x^{4}
\end{aligned}
$$
于是,原式可化简为:
$$
\begin{aligned}
I & = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(\sin x) – \mathrm{e}^{\cos x – 1}}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(\sin x) – \cos x + \cos x – \mathrm{e}^{\cos x – 1}}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(\sin x) – \cos x}{x^{4}} + \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos x – \mathrm{e}^{\cos x – 1}}{x^{4}} \\ \\
\end{aligned}
$$
接着,由拉格朗日中值定理,可知:
$$
I_{1} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos(\sin x) – \cos x}{x^{4}} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(\sin x – x) \cdot (-\sin \xi)}{x^{4}}
$$
由于 $\xi$ 介于 $x$ 和 $\sin x$ 之间,当 $x \to 0$ 时,$\sin x \sim x$, 所以 $\xi \sim x$, 于是:
$$
I_{1} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\left( \frac{-1}{6}x^{3} \right) \cdot (-x)}{x^{4}} = \frac{1}{6}
$$
又由泰勒公式展开,得:
$$
\begin{aligned}
I_{2} & = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos x – \mathrm{e}^{\cos x – 1}}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = -\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\cos x – 1} – \cos x}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = -\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{e}^{\cos x – 1} – (\cos x – 1) – 1}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = -\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\frac{1}{2}(\cos x – 1)^{2}}{x^{4}} \\ \\
& = -\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\frac{1}{2}(-\frac{1}{2}x^{2})^{2}}{x^{4}} = -\frac{1}{8}
\end{aligned}
$$
综上可得:
$$
\begin{aligned}
I & = I_{1} + I_{2} \\ \\
& = \frac{1}{6} – \frac{1}{8} \\ \\
& = \frac{4 – 3}{24} \\ \\
& = \frac{1}{24}
\end{aligned}
$$
求函数 $f(x,y)$ $=$ $(2x^{2}-y^{2})\mathrm{e}^{x}$ 的极值.
已知函数 $g(x)$ 连续. 设 $f(x)$ $=$ $\int_{0}^{x^{2}} g(xt) \mathrm{~d} t$, 求 $f ^{\prime} (x)$ 的表达式,并判断 $f ^{\prime} (x)$ 在 $x=0$ 处的连续性.
计算 $I$ $=$ $\int_{-1}^{1} \mathrm{~d} x \int_{|x|}^{\sqrt{2-x^{2}}} y \sin \sqrt{x^{2} + y^{2}} \mathrm{~d} y$
设矩阵 $\boldsymbol{A} = \begin{pmatrix}
1 & b & -1 \\
a + 2 & 3 & -3a
\end{pmatrix}$. 若二次型 $\boldsymbol{x}^{\top} (\boldsymbol{A} \boldsymbol{A}^{\top}) \boldsymbol{x}$ 的规范形为 $\boldsymbol{y}_{1}^{2}$, 则 $a + b =$____
已知函数 $f(x,y)$ 可微,且 $\mathrm{d}f(0,0) = \pi \mathrm{d} x + 3 \mathrm{d}y$, 记 $g(x) = f(\ln x,\sin\pi x)$, 则 $g ^{\prime} (1) =$____